Post by papadon on Jul 23, 2007 10:34:49 GMT -5
Spiritual Death, NOT!
In the Word Aflame Elective Series publication, entitled BIBLE DOCTRINES - FOUNDATION OF THE CHURCH, copyright 1984 by the Pentecostal Publishing House, Hazelwood, MO 63042, we find it written in Chapter 5 - The Conquest of Death - Death is a bleak fact that has confronted every individual ever born. None can escape it, for “it is appointed unto men once to die” (Hebrews 9:27). A gloating, uninhibited enemy, death has stalked and claimed its prey throughout human history. Always triumphant, it comes with no respect of persons. (page #55)
On page #61 - subtitled, The promises in God’s Word, we also find it written - Although Adam was told that he would die if he partook of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, he ate anyway. As a result of his sin, he died, first spiritually and then physically.
It is to the final statement - As a result of his sin, he died, first spiritually, and then physically - that I wish to direct my remarks.
Is it proper for one to conclude that Adam (and Eve) experienced a “spiritual death” in that same moment God imposed the penalty of death upon their physical bodies? What does the phrase “spiritual death” imply? Lets expend a few moments to carefully examine the definition of these two words of the English language in an effort to aid us in arriving at a better, sound, scriptural based understanding of the circumstances which transpired following this first couple’s eating of the forbidden fruit, which wrought upon them (and their descendants) the penalty of physical death.
We find that Webster’s 3rd New International Dictionary, copyright 1986 by Merriam- Webster Inc., Publishers, Springfield, Massachusetts, USA, defines the word “spiritual” as one which implies, and/or infers, having a nature in which a concern for the Spirit of God predominates. This is to say, having ones mind set on spiritual things, or filled with holy desires and purposes. In this same dictionary we find that we word “death” is defined as one which signifies the ending of all vital functions without (the) possibility of recovery. When these two words are combined within the same phrase, that is to say, “spiritual death,” then it is intended to mean that one’s abilities of discerning things of a spiritual nature have become severed, and this without hope of recovery. With this thought in mind, lets explore how the Bible refutes the assertion that Adam (and Eve) experienced a “spiritual death” prior to dying physically.
First, if it be true that Adam (and Eve) did, indeed, experience a “spiritual death” in that same moment that God imposed the penalty of death upon their physical bodies, then such an assertion would automatically imply that God (which is to say, SPIRIT) had rendered such a judgment, would it not? Was a judgment of “spiritual death” also an integral part of this judgment? What does Christ Jesus tell us about this? Lets examine His words found recorded in John 5:22 in an effort to determine the answer - “For the Father (Spirit) judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgment unto the Son.” Was the “Son,” that is to say, the visible manifestation of God in human form, physically present in the Garden of Eden when the penalty of death was imposed upon Adam and Eve? Of course, not, that is, except in the mind of God! Thus we find that the statement - “As a result of his sin, he (Adam) died, first spiritually, and then physically,” simply CANNOT be supported by the sound precepts of the Bible. But wait! There exists even more scriptural evidence in support of this refutation.
Do we not also find it explicitly stated in the inspired writing of apostle Peter that “The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance”? (see II Peter 3:9) Are we to infer from this statement that God did NOT exercise patience (i.e., “longsuffering”) with Adam and Eve following their willful sin against His commandment? Of course not! Even the very thought of such is absurd, for such an act by God would represent a violation of His own established guiding principle of “righteousness,” and this we know, He simply cannot do! And yet, even with this scriptural evidence, there remains even more which enables us to refute the aforementioned statement concerning the alleged “spiritual death” of Adam (and Eve).
Recorded in Romans 10:13 we find this important statement - “For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.” This profoundly revealing assertion is immediately followed by several significant questions: “How then shall they call on him in whom they have not believed? And how shall they believe in him of whom they have not heard? And how shall they hear without a preacher?” (see verses 14-15) You see, my dear friends, even from the very beginning of mankind’s existence upon the earth, God devised and implemented a plan whereby all men might be made aware of His name and plan of redemption, and provided the means of delivering such to us. The means through which such good news would be proclaimed was by way of the words of a “preacher” - a man sent of God. So, with this thought in mind these questions beg an answer - Who informed Cain and Abel, the sons of Adam and Eve, of the requirement to bring an offering unto God as an atonement for their sins? Who was the “preacher(s)” which told them of the “name of the Lord”? In the absence of any scriptural passage which indicate otherwise, then is it not the proper conclusion that the name of the very first “preacher(s)” sent of God with the message of salvation, none other than Adam (and Eve)? I, for one, believe the answer is obvious!
In fact, the words of Genesis 4:1, which describe the birth of Cain, advises us that whenever Eve realized she was with child and gave birth to this firstborn of mankind, she said, “I have gotten a man from the LORD.” This hardly sounds like a statement that one who is allegedly dead “spiritually” would make, don’t you agree?
We also find it written in Genesis 4:26 that following the birth of Adam and Eve’s first grandson, a male child named Enos, this revealing statement: “then began men to call upon the name of the LORD.” Who do you suppose told others of this “name,” if not Adam or Eve?
Just some thoughts on this matter that I have found to be most interesting and thought I would pass it on to others. I would enjoy reading the comments of others about this matter. Perhaps there are those who might add even more scriptural evidence to refute the erroneous and misleading statement published about this. I would hope that the publishers of this publication would change their statements concerning this matter to better reflect what the scriptures have to say about it.
Regards,
PaPaDon
In the Word Aflame Elective Series publication, entitled BIBLE DOCTRINES - FOUNDATION OF THE CHURCH, copyright 1984 by the Pentecostal Publishing House, Hazelwood, MO 63042, we find it written in Chapter 5 - The Conquest of Death - Death is a bleak fact that has confronted every individual ever born. None can escape it, for “it is appointed unto men once to die” (Hebrews 9:27). A gloating, uninhibited enemy, death has stalked and claimed its prey throughout human history. Always triumphant, it comes with no respect of persons. (page #55)
On page #61 - subtitled, The promises in God’s Word, we also find it written - Although Adam was told that he would die if he partook of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, he ate anyway. As a result of his sin, he died, first spiritually and then physically.
It is to the final statement - As a result of his sin, he died, first spiritually, and then physically - that I wish to direct my remarks.
Is it proper for one to conclude that Adam (and Eve) experienced a “spiritual death” in that same moment God imposed the penalty of death upon their physical bodies? What does the phrase “spiritual death” imply? Lets expend a few moments to carefully examine the definition of these two words of the English language in an effort to aid us in arriving at a better, sound, scriptural based understanding of the circumstances which transpired following this first couple’s eating of the forbidden fruit, which wrought upon them (and their descendants) the penalty of physical death.
We find that Webster’s 3rd New International Dictionary, copyright 1986 by Merriam- Webster Inc., Publishers, Springfield, Massachusetts, USA, defines the word “spiritual” as one which implies, and/or infers, having a nature in which a concern for the Spirit of God predominates. This is to say, having ones mind set on spiritual things, or filled with holy desires and purposes. In this same dictionary we find that we word “death” is defined as one which signifies the ending of all vital functions without (the) possibility of recovery. When these two words are combined within the same phrase, that is to say, “spiritual death,” then it is intended to mean that one’s abilities of discerning things of a spiritual nature have become severed, and this without hope of recovery. With this thought in mind, lets explore how the Bible refutes the assertion that Adam (and Eve) experienced a “spiritual death” prior to dying physically.
First, if it be true that Adam (and Eve) did, indeed, experience a “spiritual death” in that same moment that God imposed the penalty of death upon their physical bodies, then such an assertion would automatically imply that God (which is to say, SPIRIT) had rendered such a judgment, would it not? Was a judgment of “spiritual death” also an integral part of this judgment? What does Christ Jesus tell us about this? Lets examine His words found recorded in John 5:22 in an effort to determine the answer - “For the Father (Spirit) judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgment unto the Son.” Was the “Son,” that is to say, the visible manifestation of God in human form, physically present in the Garden of Eden when the penalty of death was imposed upon Adam and Eve? Of course, not, that is, except in the mind of God! Thus we find that the statement - “As a result of his sin, he (Adam) died, first spiritually, and then physically,” simply CANNOT be supported by the sound precepts of the Bible. But wait! There exists even more scriptural evidence in support of this refutation.
Do we not also find it explicitly stated in the inspired writing of apostle Peter that “The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance”? (see II Peter 3:9) Are we to infer from this statement that God did NOT exercise patience (i.e., “longsuffering”) with Adam and Eve following their willful sin against His commandment? Of course not! Even the very thought of such is absurd, for such an act by God would represent a violation of His own established guiding principle of “righteousness,” and this we know, He simply cannot do! And yet, even with this scriptural evidence, there remains even more which enables us to refute the aforementioned statement concerning the alleged “spiritual death” of Adam (and Eve).
Recorded in Romans 10:13 we find this important statement - “For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.” This profoundly revealing assertion is immediately followed by several significant questions: “How then shall they call on him in whom they have not believed? And how shall they believe in him of whom they have not heard? And how shall they hear without a preacher?” (see verses 14-15) You see, my dear friends, even from the very beginning of mankind’s existence upon the earth, God devised and implemented a plan whereby all men might be made aware of His name and plan of redemption, and provided the means of delivering such to us. The means through which such good news would be proclaimed was by way of the words of a “preacher” - a man sent of God. So, with this thought in mind these questions beg an answer - Who informed Cain and Abel, the sons of Adam and Eve, of the requirement to bring an offering unto God as an atonement for their sins? Who was the “preacher(s)” which told them of the “name of the Lord”? In the absence of any scriptural passage which indicate otherwise, then is it not the proper conclusion that the name of the very first “preacher(s)” sent of God with the message of salvation, none other than Adam (and Eve)? I, for one, believe the answer is obvious!
In fact, the words of Genesis 4:1, which describe the birth of Cain, advises us that whenever Eve realized she was with child and gave birth to this firstborn of mankind, she said, “I have gotten a man from the LORD.” This hardly sounds like a statement that one who is allegedly dead “spiritually” would make, don’t you agree?
We also find it written in Genesis 4:26 that following the birth of Adam and Eve’s first grandson, a male child named Enos, this revealing statement: “then began men to call upon the name of the LORD.” Who do you suppose told others of this “name,” if not Adam or Eve?
Just some thoughts on this matter that I have found to be most interesting and thought I would pass it on to others. I would enjoy reading the comments of others about this matter. Perhaps there are those who might add even more scriptural evidence to refute the erroneous and misleading statement published about this. I would hope that the publishers of this publication would change their statements concerning this matter to better reflect what the scriptures have to say about it.
Regards,
PaPaDon